Featured image of post On Regularity in Differential Geomotry

On Regularity in Differential Geomotry

my own understanding on the regular curve (surface is similar)

女孩子的脸虽然都是同胚的,但是有的正则性好一点,所以这部分女孩子的脸就格外好看。

网络

The end of this semester’s FINAL EXAM has come, and at last I could try to make time to complete this blog. This will be my first time to write a maths blog in English. I’ll translate it into Chinese later. Sounds odd… Why don’t I write it in Chinese at very first, but force myself to use English pretending to be a native English speaker? Oh, it is said that maths majors are all somehow masochists. Most of them, anyway. You know, “No pain no gain.”

I shall start with basic definitions.

Def(3-dimensional curve) A parametrized curve in 3-dimensional Euclidean space is a continuous map $\alpha: I \to \mathbb{R}^3$ of an open interval $I = (a,b)$ of the real line $\mathbb{R}$ into $\mathbb{R}^3$. As for $\alpha = (x(t),y(t),z(t))$, $t$ is the parameter of line $\alpha$. Image set${x(t),y(t),z(t)}$ is the graph of line $\alpha$.

So, differential geometry, we want the methods of differential calculus can be applied.

Def(differential curve) A parametrized differentiable curve is a continuous differentiable map. As for $\alpha = (x(t),y(t),z(t))$, $x(t)$, $y(t)$, $z(t)$ are all $C^\infty$ functions.

One obvious simple instance of non-differential curve is absolute value function.

Those two properties above, continuity and differentiability, seem to be enough for a certain curve in Euclidean space to be analysed easily. However, all the textbooks taught me “regularity” were forgoten12. What exactly is “regularity” they mentioned here? I shall read the definition again.

Def(regular curve) A parametrized differentiable curve $\alpha: \alpha(t) = (x(t), y(t), z(t))$ is regular if $$\forall t \in (a,b), |\alpha’(t)| = \sqrt{[x’(t)]^2 +[y’(t)]^2 + [z’(t)]^2}> 0.$$

We want to insure that the curve we consider has a tangent line at every point. Frenet frame, a powerful tool for analysis, consists of three vectors orthogonal to each other: unit tangent vector $\bm{t}$, unit normal vector $\bm{n}$, unit binormal vector $\bm{b}$. Both $\bm{n}$ and $\bm{b}$ come from $\bm{t}$ parallel to the tangent line. What if the derivative of $\alpha(t_0)$ was a zero vector? Unfortunately, such tangent line might not exist at $t_0$, and dear Frenet frame couldn’t work. Frent frame is only a small example to show why WE NEED TANGENT LINEs EVERYWHERE.

e.g. Consider such a plane curve, $\alpha: \alpha(t) = (t^4, t^2, t^3)$. Of course it’s differentiable. Notice that $\alpha’(0) = (0,0,0)$, the velocity vector is zero for $t = 0$, so this curve is not regular. You can check its figure below. Pay attention to $(0,0,0)$, the curve isn’t smooth there.

Image

Someone (like me) prefer to play devil’s advocate: how can a non-zero derivative demonstrate the existence of the tangent line to the curve? The proof is as followed.

Proof Assume $\alpha: \alpha(t) = (x(t),y(t),z(t))$ is a differential curve. According to the definition of derivative of vector function, $\forall t_0 \in (a,b)$, $$ \frac{\mathrm{d}\alpha}{\mathrm{d}t}\Big\vert_{t_0} = (\frac{\mathrm{d}x}{\mathrm{d}t},\frac{\mathrm{d}y}{\mathrm{d}t},\frac{\mathrm{d}z}{\mathrm{d}t})\Big\vert_{t_0} = \lim_{t \to t_0} \frac{\alpha(t) - \alpha(t_0)}{t-t_0}. $$ According to differentiability, $$ \lim_{t \to t_0-0} \frac{\alpha(t_0) - \alpha(t)}{t-t_0} = \lim_{t \to t_0+0} \frac{\alpha(t) - \alpha(t_0)}{t-t_0}, $$ i.e. $\alpha’(t_0-0) = \alpha’(t_0+0)$. The unit direction vector of the left tangent line is $$ \bm{e}^-(t_0) = -\lim_{t\to t_0 - 0} \frac{\alpha(t) - \alpha(t_0)}{|\alpha(t) - \alpha(t_0)|}; $$ The unit direction vector of the right tangent line is $$ \bm{e}^+(t_0) = +\lim_{t\to t_0 + 0} \frac{\alpha(t) - \alpha(t_0)}{|\alpha(t) - \alpha(t_0)|}. $$ Obviously, iff. $\bm{e}^-(t_0) = \bm{e}^+(t_0) = \bm{e}$, the tangent line to $\alpha$ at $t_0$ exists, and its direction vector is just $\bm{e}$.
$\bm{e}^-(t_0) \parallel \alpha’(t_0-0)$, $\bm{e}^+(t_0) \parallel \alpha’(t_0+0)$. If $\alpha’(t_0 - 0) = \alpha’(t_0 + 0) = \alpha’(t_0) \neq \bm{0}$, $\bm{e}^-(t_0)$ and $\bm{e}^+(t_0)$ would get to the same direction, hence they are equal.
Q.E.D.

This proof tells us $\alpha’(t_0) \neq \bm{0} \Rightarrow $ tangent line exists. In contrast, can we say there’s no tangent line if $\alpha’(t_0) = \bm{0}$? Sorry, just take a look at $\alpha: \alpha(t) = (t^3, t^3)$.


  1. MANFREDO P. DO CARMO. Geometry of Curves and Surfaces: Revised and Updated Second Edition[M]. Dover Publications, 2016. ISBN: 978-0-486-80699-0. ↩︎

  2. 彭家贵,陈卿. 微分几何[M]. 北京:高等教育出版社, 2021. ISBN: 978-7-04-056950-6. ↩︎

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